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From: rburke on 31 Aug 2005 22:12 I have a friend recently diagnosed with uterine leiomyosarcoma, a relatively aggressive myometrial sarcoma with an incidence of one in four to six million per year (rare enough that most oncologists may not see one in a career). The tumor was discovered after a hysterectomy made necessary by sustained bleeding thought to be caused by benign uterine leiomyomas. The particulars of the pathology report were as follows: - uterine leiomyosarcoma - 9 cm diameter - myototic count > 20 per 10 HPF - marked vascular pleomorphism - leiomyoscarcoma confined within myometrium - negative for endocervical or uterine involvement - extensive lymphovascular permeation by sarcoma cells, including permeation into the cervical lymphatics My friend has just returned from an appointment with a gynecological oncologist who, quite frankly, was a p----, and an uncommunicative p---- at that. His opinion, which he offered breezily before shooing the patient and her husband from the office, was that he believed the surgeon had removed all the affected tissue during the surgery, and that no further treatment was warranted. The sarcoma in question often metastasizes to the liver or lung, so frequent monitoring would be required. There was a twenty percent chance of a recurrence within 3 years. First, as far as I understand, the hysterectomy performed for patients with leiomyomas is typically subtotal and does not include a salpingo-oophorectomy, whereas the treatment for uterine leiomyosarcoma does -- TAH plus BSO. I'm surprised no BSO is planned. Second, the recurrence rate even with stage I tumors I understand to be closer to sixty or seventy percent between eight and sixteen months, even with the TAH plus BSO. Due to the hugh incidence of recurrence, the five-year survival for stage I tumors varies between only forty and sixty percent, depending on whom you ask. The rates drop off precipitously for later-stage tumors, falling to twenty to zero percent. (On the other hand, the numbers are so small, the stats may not be very reliable). At any rate, doesn't the oncologist's opinion seem unreasonably optimistic, especially considering the pathologist's reference to lymphatic involvement? I've urged her to seek a referral to a sarcoma specialist, which she's now done, but I'd like to help her arm herself with as much information going into to appointment as possible, so any further input would be gratefully received.
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