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From: zack on 19 Apr 2008 15:17 I recently had an head/neck MRI for chronic pain on the left side of my head, neck and back, ringing ears and dizziness. The scan went down to C1-C2. The MRI was taken in supine position. Towards the end of the scanning process I began to feel throbbing in the front of my throat in synchrony with the banging of the scanner. This continued until the the muscles on my left upper back joined in, twitching in time with the banging of the scanner. I assumed they were scanning the lower brain down to C1-C2 at this time. I asked the technician and his colleague about this and was told that it sometime happens. His colleague said that she noticed the vibration on the monitor during this time. He seemed to be reluctant to speak so I didn't persue it. I heard nothing more about it. I assumed it may be of diagnostic value only because the area of spasming (contracting) muscles are where I have chronic pain. The ENT that ordered the scan did not know why and suggested I contact the radiologist. Unfortunately their policy is not to talk directly to patients. The ENT is reluctant to waste his time given that the scan was unremarkable. I thought that the MRI would not interfer with the nerves in this way. Causing firing potentials to be reached. Makes me wonder about whether my brain was randomly changed during the scan ;) A sobering thought but beside the point (no metaphorical pun intended). Not meaning to beg the question but I do understand that hydrogen atoms are magnetically polarized, released and then release energy in the form of an RF wave. What I observed was that the muscles (Rhomboids in particular) fired (twitched, spasmed, went into teteny) in rhythm with the banging of the scanner (coincident events). The vibration of my muscles was observed by the technician (real macroscopic muscular event). It surprises me that RF waves would acount for causing nerves to reach their firing threshold (needs further explanation). And it surprises me that it only affected an area of persistent pain (left side under scapula) and not both sides (another coincidence). Both sides of my brain were scanned. I am looking to understand. If I am having persistent pain, the nerves stimulating those muscles are already hypersensitive and their firing threshold could be lower than usual. This specific area of twitching should then be diagnostically significant in demonstrating hypersensitivity and hence explain pain, inflammation and wasting muscles. The doctor having a further correlation with my previously stated symptoms, his observations and the objectively observed MRI experience why then are the results unremarkable. The subjective experience of pain is not scientifically measurable and pain thresholds are subjectively reported and vary over time and across the population. Given the difficulty patients have in demonstrating the existence of pain from trauma why doesn't the radiologist use all of the available information. Given that I have no diagnosis except "you may have Meniere's syndrome", I would be interested in any comments. Thanks, Zack
From: zack on 22 Apr 2008 15:14 Is David Nye still here? I am a long time absent subscriber to this group. More than a decade. How time flies when you have chronic problems. Zack
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