From: zack on
I recently had an head/neck MRI for chronic pain on the left side of
my head, neck and back, ringing ears and dizziness. The scan went
down to C1-C2.

The MRI was taken in supine position. Towards the end of the
scanning
process I began to feel throbbing in the front of my throat in
synchrony with the banging of the scanner. This continued until the
the muscles on my left upper back joined in, twitching in time with
the banging of the scanner. I assumed they were scanning the lower
brain down to C1-C2 at this time.

I asked the technician and his colleague about this and was told that
it sometime happens. His colleague said that she noticed the
vibration on the monitor during this time. He seemed to be reluctant
to speak so I didn't persue it.

I heard nothing more about it. I assumed it may be of diagnostic
value only because the area of spasming (contracting) muscles are
where I have chronic pain.

The ENT that ordered the scan did not know why and suggested I
contact
the radiologist. Unfortunately their policy is not to talk directly
to patients. The ENT is reluctant to waste his time given that the
scan was unremarkable.

I thought that the MRI would not interfer with the nerves in this
way. Causing firing potentials to be reached. Makes me wonder about
whether my brain was randomly changed during the scan ;) A sobering
thought but beside the point (no metaphorical pun intended).

Not meaning to beg the question but I do understand that hydrogen
atoms are magnetically polarized, released and then release energy in
the form of an RF wave. What I observed was that the muscles
(Rhomboids in particular) fired (twitched, spasmed, went into teteny)
in rhythm with the banging of the scanner (coincident events). The
vibration of my muscles was observed by the technician (real
macroscopic muscular event). It surprises me that RF waves would
acount for causing nerves to reach their firing threshold (needs
further explanation). And it surprises me that it only affected an
area
of persistent pain (left side under scapula) and not both sides
(another

coincidence). Both sides of my brain were scanned. I am looking to
understand.

If I am having persistent pain, the nerves stimulating those muscles
are
already hypersensitive and their firing threshold could be lower than
usual. This specific area of twitching should then be diagnostically
significant in demonstrating hypersensitivity and hence explain pain,
inflammation and wasting muscles. The doctor having a further
correlation with my previously stated symptoms, his observations and
the objectively observed MRI experience why then are the results
unremarkable.

The subjective experience of pain is not scientifically measurable
and
pain thresholds are subjectively reported and vary over time and
across the population. Given the difficulty patients have in
demonstrating the existence of pain from trauma why doesn't the
radiologist use all of the available information.

Given that I have no diagnosis except "you may have Meniere's
syndrome", I would be interested in any comments.

Thanks,

Zack
From: zack on
Is David Nye still here? I am a long time absent subscriber to this
group. More than a decade. How time flies when you have chronic
problems.

Zack
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